21. One of your employees is up for promotion. If the promotion is granted, the employee will be reassigned elsewhere causing a problem for you on your project. You can delay the promotion until your project is completed. You should:
a. Support the promotion but work with the employee and the employee's new management to develop a good transition plan
b. Ask the employee to refuse the promotion until your project is completed.
c. Arrange to delay the promotion until the project is completed
d. Tell the employee that it is his responsibility to find a suitable replacement so that the project will not suffer.
22. The integrity of the project manager is often challenged by stakeholders who attempt to use personal power or influence to change the scope of an agreed upon deliverable. In these situations the project manager's most appropriate response would be:
a. Refer the stakeholder to the process for change documented in the approved contract.
b. Agree to the change because customer satisfaction is the goal regardless of cost.
c. Contact the legal department and suspend all further project work
d. Determine the risks and rewards for implementing the change before taking any action.
23. During project implementation the client interprets a clause in the contract to mean the he is entitled to a substantial refund for work recently completed. You review the clause and disagree with the client's conclusion. As the project manager which of the following actions should be taken
a. Disregard the customer's conclusion and continue to process invoices
b. Document the dispute and refer to the provisions of the contract that address interpretations and disputes
c. Advise the customer that ambiguous information in contracts is always interpreted in favor of the contractor
d. Immediately correct the clause to remove any possible misinterpretation by the customer
24. Your executives, in appreciation for the success of your project, have given you a $10,000 bonus to be disbursed among your five-team members. One of the five, who is a substandard worker and accomplished very little on your project, is in your car pool. You should:
a. Provide everyone with an equal share
b. Provide everyone a share based upon their performance
c. Ask the workers to decide among themselves how the bonus should be subdivided
d. Ask the sponsor to make the decision
25. Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager should
a. Determine the risks associated with the violation
b. Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation
c. Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results
d. Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response
26. Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by:
a. Developing and implementing a project review and lessons learned process
b. Establishing strict guidelines for protecting intellectual property
c. Promote the use of ad hoc project management
d. Ensuring that all project plans are developed before the project team is formed
27. You have been assigned two concurrent projects. Because of the nature of the projects, you have a conflict of interest. You should:
a. Do the best you can and tell no one b. Ask to be removed from one of the projects
c. Ask to be removed from both of the projects d. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice
28. You receive a contract to perform testing for an external client. After contract award, the customer provides you with the test matrix to use for your 16 tests. The vice president for engineering says that the customer's test matrix is wrong, and she will use a different test matrix, which should give better results. This is a violation to the SOW. You should:
a. Use the customer's test matrix
b. Use the engineering test matrix without telling the customer
c. Use the engineering test matrix and discuss the reasons with the customer
d. Ask your sponsor for clarification, assuming that the vice president is not your sponsor
29. An effective method for improving an organization's project management knowledge base is through:
a. Coaching and mentoring b. Referent power
c. A weak Matrix organizational structure d. Fast Tracking
Answer Key
1=c 2=d 3=a 4=a 5=c 6=b 7=c 8=b 9=b 10=a 11=c
12=b 13=b 14=d 15=d 16=c 17=b 18=b 19=a 20=a 21=a 22=a
23=b 24=c 25=b 26=a 27=d 28=d 29=a


Disclaimer: These questions are intended for study purposes only. Success on these questions is not indicative of success on the Project Management Professional Certification Examination. This download of the Sample Exam Questions is for your personal use and NOT FOR commercial use. Any unauthorized use or duplication of this document is prohibited!
1. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is called:
a. The project plan. B. A statement of work.
C. An exception report. D. A Pareto analysis.
2. An example of scope verification is:
a. Reviewing the performance of an installed software module.
B. Managing changes to the project schedule.
C. Decomposing the WBS to a work package level.
D. Performing a benefit/cost analysis to determine if we should proceed with the pro
3. Which of the following is not an example of a source of scope change?
A. A variation in government regulations.
B. Failure to include a required feature in the design of a telecommunication system.
C. A need to engage in bottom-up cost estimating.
D. Introducing technology that was not available when scope was originally defined.
4. The subdivision of major project deliverables, as identified in the scope statement, into smaller, more manageable components is called:
a. Parametric estimation .B. Scope definition.
C. Feasibility analysis. D. Benefit-cost analysis.
5. The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives, measuring their achievement, and adjusting performance in accordance with the results of the measurement is called:
a. Strategic planning. B. Alternative objectives inventory.
C. Management by objectives. D. Contingency planning.
6. Configuration management is:
a. Used to ensure that the description of the project product is correct and complete.
B. The creation of the work breakdown structure.
C. The set of procedures developed to assure that project design criteria are met.
D. A mechanism to track budget and schedule variances.
7. A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved by:
a. Planning it into the project. B. Developing careful mechanisms to inspect for quality.
C. Striving to do the best job possible. D. Conducting quality circle activities.
8. Your most recent project status report contains the following information: BCWP = 3,000, ACWP = 3,500, and BCWS = 4,000. The schedule variance is:
a. + 1,000. B. + 500. C. - 500. D. - 1,000.
9. Learning curve theory emphasizes that in producing many goods:
a. Cost decreases as production rates increase.
B. Average unit cost decreases as more units are produced.
C. Materials become cheaper when they are purchased in bulk.
D. Laborers become more productive because of technological advances.
10. Rearranging resources so that constant resource levels are maintained is called:
a. Floating. B. Leveling. C. Restructuring. D. Crashing.
11. The _________ is a time-phased budget that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance in the project.
A. Work breakdown structure b. Project schedule c. Cost baseline d. Cost budget
12. To transfer most of the cost risk to the contractor, the client may use a ___________ contract.
A. Cost plus award b. Cost plus incentive fee c. Cost plus fixed fee d. Fixed price
13. An appropriate sequence for risk management activities is:
a. Risk identification, risk quantification, and risk response development and control.
B. Risk identification, risk assessment, and risk planning.
C. Risk identification, risk mitigation, and risk management.
D. Risk identification, risk elimination, and risk mitigation.
14. Theory X holds that:
a. Quality improvements lie in the hands of quality circles.
B. Profits are tied to meeting schedule deadlines.
C. Absenteeism is tied to poor working conditions.
D. Workers are inherently unmotivated and need strong guidance.
15. All of the following are characteristics of parametric estimating except:
a. Historical information. B. Quantifiable. C. Scalable. D. Activity lists.
16. Inputs to cost budgeting include all of the following except:
a. Cost baseline b. Cost estimate c. Work breakdown structure d. Project schedule
17. Inputs used during scope planning include all of the following except:
a. Constraints. B. Project charter. C. Budget/cost analysis. D. Product description.
18. Cost control outputs include all of the following except:
a. Estimate at completion. B. Budget updates.
C. Revised cost estimates. D. Cost baseline.
19. Risk identification outputs include the following except:
a. Decision trees. B. Inputs to other processes.
C. Risk symptoms. D. Potential risk events.
20. Puts into overall change control include all of the following except:
a. Project plan. B. Change requests. C. Change control system. D. Performance reports
21. Activity duration estimate inputs include all of the following except:
a. Resource requirements. B. Basis of estimates. C. Activity lists. D. Constraints.
22. All of the following are contract types except:
a. Unit-price. B. Make-or-buy. C. Cost reimbursable. D. Lump sum.
23. Initiation inputs for a project include all of the following except:
a. Product description. B. Strategic plan. C. Project charter. D. Selection criteria.
24. Responses to risk threats include all of the following except:
a. Avoidance. B. Acceptance. C. Mitigation. D. Rejection.
25. The process of performance reporting includes all of the following except _____________.
A. Status reporting. B. Progress reporting. C. Forecasting. D. Product analysis
26. Constrained optimization methods of project selection include:
a. Scoring models. B. Benefit-cost ratios. C. Multi-objective programming algorithms.
D. Subjective analyses.
27. Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct?
A. A fixed price contract contains the most risk for the buyer.
B. Cost reimbursable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential.
C. Lump sum contracts offer sellers the greatest profit potential.
D. Unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions.
28. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) numbering system should allow project staff to:
a. Identify the level at which individual WBS elements are found.
B. Identify configuration management milestones.
C. Estimate the costs of WBS elements.
D. Provide project justification.
29. All of the following are true quality statements except:
a. Quality improvement depends upon better definition and increased awareness of the requirements/specifications.
B. Project quality management must address both management of the project and the product of the project.
C. Recognition of key actions required of each team member is necessary to meet quality objectives.
D. Computer-aided design systems can improve quality, but only at the expense of an increase in the cost of design.
30. All of the following are examples of tools often used in cost estimating except:
a. Parametric modeling. B. Analogous estimating.
C. Bottom-up estimating. D. Activity duration estimates.
31. At XYZ Inc., the hourly wage for semi-skilled workers is $14.00. The annual audit shows that fringe benefits cost 30% of basic wages, and that overhead costs are 60% of wages plus fringe benefits. What is the loaded” hourly wage for a semi-skilled worker at XYZ Inc.?
A. $27.14. B. $28.96. C. $30.03. D. $29.12.
32. Of the following estimates, which most accurately reflect the actual cost of the project?
A. Conceptual estimates. B. Order of magnitude estimates.
C. Preliminary estimates. D. Bottom-up estimates.
33. The most crucial time for project risk assessment is:
a. When a problem surfaces. B. During the planning phase.
C. During the close-out phase. D. After the project schedule has been published.
34. When there is uncertainty associated with one or more aspects of the project, one of the first steps to take is to:
a. Revise project plan. B. Conduct a risk-benefit analysis.
C. Conduct a needs analysis. D. Increase the estimated cost of the project.
35. Including a contingency reserve in the project budget is intended to:
a. Reduce the probability of scope changes. B. Increase the probability of scope changes.
C. Reduce the probability of a cost overrun. D. Increase the probability of a cost overrun.
36. Given the information in the following table, what is the expected value from this risk event?
Probability Result
a. -10,000. B. - 7,500. C. + 2,500. D. -7,000.
37. A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment upon satisfactory completion of the contract. About halfway through the contract, the contractor project manager informs their contract administrator that financial problems are making it difficult for them to pay their employees and subcontractors. The contractor asks for a partial payment for work accomplished. Which of the following actions by the buyer is most likely to cause problems for the project?
A. Starting partial payments for work accomplished.
B. Making no payments because it would violate the conditions of the contract.
C. Paying for work accomplished to date.
D. Negotiating a change to the payment conditions in the contract.
38. A precise description of a physical item, procedure, or service for implementation of an item or service is called ：
a. Work package. B. Baseline.
C. Product description. D. Work breakdown structure (WBS) element.
39. A project should be terminated for all of the following reasons except:
a. Lack of team synergy. B. The project no longer meets the company's objectives.
C. The resources are not available to complete project activities.
D. Project funding has been significantly reduced.
40. One common way to compute estimated at completion (EAC) is to take the project budgeted-at-completion and:
a. Divide it by the schedule performance index. B. Multiply it by the schedule performance index.
C. Multiply it by the cost performance. D. Divide it by the cost performance index.
答案:
1.B 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.A 7.A 8.D 9.B.10.B 11.C 12.D 13.A 14.D 15.D 16.A 17.C 18.D 19.A 20.C
21.B 22.B 23.C 24.D 25.D 26.C 27.C 28.A 29.D 30.D 31.D 32.D 33.B 34.B 35.C 36.D 37.B 38.C 39.A 40.D